[2025] New SK0-005 exam dumps Use Updated CompTIA Exam
Verified SK0-005 Dumps Q&As - SK0-005 Test Engine with Correct Answers
CompTIA Server+ certification exam, also known as SK0-005, is a popular certification exam for IT professionals who work with server technology. SK0-005 exam is designed to validate the knowledge and skills required to build, maintain, troubleshoot, and support server hardware and software. CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam certification is recognized worldwide and is considered an industry standard for server administration.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which of the following documents would be useful when trying to restore IT infrastructure operations after a non-planned interruption?
- A. Service-level agreement
- B. Disaster recovery plan
- C. Business impact analysis
- D. Business continuity plan
Answer: B
Explanation:
A disaster recovery (DR) plan is used to bring failed systems online as quickly and efficiently as possible. The DR plan must be updated periodically to reflect changing threats.
The DR plan contains step-by-step procedures detailing exactly how systems are to be quickly recovered. All stakeholders must know their roles for the effective recovery of failed systems.
The DR plan includes the following:
* Table of contents
* DR scope
* Contact information
* Recovery procedures
* Document revision history
* Glossary
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which of the following is a system that scans outgoing email for account numbers, sensitive phrases, and other forms of Pll?
- A. IPS
- B. HIDS
- C. SIEM
- D. DLP
Answer: D
Explanation:
DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention and it is a system that scans outgoing email for account numbers, sensitive phrases, and other forms of PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can help prevent data breaches, comply with regulations, and protect the privacy of customers and employees. DLP can also block, encrypt, or quarantine emails that contain sensitive data. References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 3.2)
NEW QUESTION # 70
An administrator has been troubleshooting a server issue. The administrator carefully questioned the users and examined the available logs. Using this information, the administrator was able to rule out several possible causes and develop a theory as to what the issue might be. Through further testing, the administrator's theory proved to be correct. Which of the following should be the next step to troubleshoot the issue?
- A. Escalate the issue to the management team.
- B. Establish an action plan.
- C. Implement the solution.
- D. Document the findings and actions.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The next step to troubleshoot the issue after developing and testing a theory is to establish an action plan. This involves identifying the steps needed to implement the solution, estimating the time and resources required, and evaluating the potential risks and impacts of the solution. Documenting the findings and actions, escalating the issue to the management team, or implementing the solution are steps that should be done after establishing an action plan. Reference: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 6.0: Disaster Recovery, Objective 6.2: Explain troubleshooting theory and methodologies.
NEW QUESTION # 71
A systems administrator is setting up a server on a LAN that uses an address space that follows the RFC 1918 standard. Which of the following IP addresses should the administrator use to be in compliance with the standard?
- A. 11.251.196.241
- B. 193.168.145.241
- C. 171.245.198.241
- D. 172.16.19.241
Answer: D
Explanation:
The administrator should use 172.16.19.241 as an IP address to be in compliance with RFC 1918 standard.
RFC 1918 defines three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for private internets, meaning they are not globally routable on the public Internet and can be used within an enterprise without any risk of conflict or overlap with other networks. These ranges are:
10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 (10/8 prefix) 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 (172.16/12 prefix) 192.168.0.0 -
192.168.255.255 (192.168/16 prefix)
Out of these ranges, only 172.16.19.241 falls within one of them (172.16/12 prefix). The other options are either public IP addresses that belong to other organizations or networks (11.251.196.241, 171.245.198.241) or invalid IP addresses that do not conform to any standard (193.168.145.241).
Reference: https://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/RFC-1918
NEW QUESTION # 72
Alter rack mounting a server, a technician must install four network cables and two power cables for the server. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate way to complete this task?
- A. Wire the four network cables and the two power cables through the cable management arm using appropriate-length cables.
- B. Use the longest cables possible to allow for adjustment of the server rail within the rack.
- C. Run the tour network cables up the left side of the rack to the top of the rack switch. Run the two power cables down the right side of the rack toward the UPS.
- D. Install an Ethernet patch panel and a PDU to accommodate the network and power cables.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
This is the most appropriate way to complete the task because it follows the best practices of cable management. Cable management is a process of organizing and securing cables in a rack or a server room to improve airflow, accessibility, safety, and aesthetics. Running the network cables up the left side and the power cables down the right side of the rack helps to avoid cable clutter, interference, and confusion. It also makes it easier to trace and troubleshoot cables if needed. Using appropriate-length cables also helps to reduce cable slack and excess. Wiring the cables through the cable management arm may cause stress and damage to the cables when moving the server in or out of the rack. Using the longest cables possible may create cable loops and tangles that can block airflow and increase fire hazards. Installing an Ethernet patch panel and a PDU (Power Distribution Unit) may be useful for accommodating more network and power cables, but not necessary for a single server. References:
https://www.howtogeek.com/303282/how-to-manage-your-pcs-fans-for-optimal-airflow-and-cooling/
https://www.howtogeek.com/303290/how-to-properly-manage-your-cables/
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which of the following actions should a server administrator take once a new backup scheme has been configured?
- A. Overwrite the backups
- B. Run a restore test
- C. Check the media integrity
- D. Clone the configuration
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which of the following backup types should be chosen for database servers?
- A. Incremental
- B. Differential
- C. Synthetic full
- D. Open file
Answer: C
Explanation:
A synthetic full backup is a type of backup that combines a full backup with one or more incremental backups to create a new full backup without accessing the source data. This type of backup is suitable for database servers, as it reduces the backup window, minimizes the impact on the server performance, and provides faster recovery time. Verified References: [Synthetic Full Backup]
NEW QUESTION # 75
A technician needs to set up a server backup method for some systems. The company's management team wants to have quick restores but minimize the amount of backup media required. Which of the following are the BEST backup methods to use to support the management's priorities? (Choose two.)
- A. Differential
- B. Archive
- C. Synthetic full
- D. Incremental
- E. Open file
- F. Full
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
The best backup methods to use to support the management's priorities are differential and incremental. A backup is a process of copying data from a source to a destination for the purpose of restoring it in case of data loss or corruption. There are different types of backup methods that vary in terms of speed, efficiency, and storage requirements. Differential and incremental backups are two types of partial backups that only copy the data that has changed since the last full backup. A full backup is a type of backup that copies all the data from the source to the destination. A full backup provides the most complete and reliable restore option, but it also takes the longest time and requires the most storage space. A differential backup copies only the data that has changed since the last full backup. A differential backup provides a faster restore option than an incremental backup, but it also takes more time and requires more storage space than an incremental backup. An incremental backup copies only the data that has changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup provides the fastest and most efficient backup option, but it also requires multiple backups to restore the data completely.
NEW QUESTION # 76
A server administrator is tasked with ensuring that information stored on company database systems is secure from bad actors. Which of the following security practices would accomplish this task?
- A. Audit logging
- B. BIOS password
- C. Encryption at rest
- D. Signal blocking
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 77
A company is running an application on a file server. A security scan reports the application has a known vulnerability. Which of the following would be the company's BEST course of action?
- A. Install antivirus software
- B. Upgrade the application package
- C. Tighten the rules on the firewall
- D. Patch the server OS
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 78
An organization recently experienced power outages. The administrator noticed the server did not have enough time to shut down properly. After the outages, the administrator had additional batteries installed in the UPS.
Which of the following best describes the solution the administrator implemented?
- A. The solution reduced shutdown time.
- B. The solution increased power out.
- C. The solution extended runtime.
- D. The solution improved load balancing,
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The solution the administrator implemented extended runtime. Runtime is the amount of time that a UPS can provide backup power to a server in case of a power outage. By installing additional batteries in the UPS, the administrator increased the capacity and duration of the backup power, allowing the server more time to shut down properly.
References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1, Lesson 1.4, Objective 1.4
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following describes a configuration in winch both nodes of a redundant system respond to service requests whenever possible?
- A. Active-passive
- B. Fallback
- C. Failover
- D. Active-active
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Active-active is a configuration in which both nodes of a redundant system respond to service requests whenever possible. It can improve the performance, availability, and load balancing of the system by distributing the workload among the nodes. However, it also requires more synchronization and coordination between the nodes to avoid conflicts or errors. Verified References: [Active-active], [Redundant system]
NEW QUESTION # 80
Following a recent power outage, a server on a server farm has been running slowly. A technician receives a ticket with a request to check for anything out of the ordinary. The technician sees an orange light on the front console of the server, indicating an error. Which of the following should the technician check next?
- A. Power supply
- B. CPU
- C. RAID battery
- D. RAM
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 81
A server administrator purchased a single license key to use for all the new servers that will be imaged this year. Which of the following MOST likely refers to the licensing type that will be used?
- A. Per concurrent user
- B. Volume
- C. Per socket
- D. Open-source
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
This is the most likely licensing type that will be used because volume licensing allows a single license key to be used for multiple installations of a software product. Volume licensing is typically used by organizations that need to deploy software to a large number of devices or users. References:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/licensing/licensing-programs/volume-licensing-programs
NEW QUESTION # 82
Users report that the FinanceApp software is not running, and they need immediate access. Issues with the FinanceApp software occur every week after the IT team completes server system updates. The users, however, do not want to contact the help desk every time the issue occurs. The users also report the new MarketApp software is not usable when it crashes, which can cause significant downtime. The technician who restarted the MarketApp software noticed it is running under a test account, which is a likely cause of the crashes.
INSTRUCTIONS
Using the Services menu provided, modify the appropriate application services to remedy the stated issues.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution in explanation.
Explanation:
FinanceApp software is running as a service named "FinanceApp Service". The service description says
"Provides financial data and calculations for the FinanceApp software". The service status is "Stopped", which means that the service is not running and the software is not functional. The service startup type is "Manual", which means that the service needs to be started manually by the user or the administrator. The service log on as is "Local System", which means that the service runs under a predefined local account that has extensive privileges on the local computer.
To fix the issue with the FinanceApp software, you need to do two things:
* First, you need to start the service, so that the software can run. To do this, you can right-click on the service name and select "Start" from the menu. Alternatively, you can select the service name and click on the "Start" button on the toolbar. You should see a message saying that the service has started successfully.
* Second, you need to change the service startup type, so that the service can start automatically every time the server boots up. This way, you don't have to contact the help desk every time the issue occurs.
To do this, you can right-click on the service name and select "Properties" from the menu. Alternatively, you can select the service name and click on the "Properties" button on the toolbar. You should see a window with several tabs and options. On the "General" tab, under "Startup type", you can select
"Automatic" from the drop-down list. Then, click on "OK" to save your changes.
By doing these two steps, you should be able to use the FinanceApp software without any problems.
The MarketApp software is running as a service named "MarketApp Service". The service description says
"Provides market data and analysis for the MarketApp software". The service status is "Running", which means that the service is running and the software is functional. However, as you reported, the software may crash sometimes, which can cause significant downtime. The service startup type is "Automatic", which means that the service starts automatically every time the server boots up. The service log on as is
"TestAccount", which is a test account that was probably used for development or testing purposes.
To fix the issue with the MarketApp software, you need to do one thing:
* You need to change the service log on as, so that the service runs under a proper account that has sufficient permissions and security settings for production use. To do this, you can right-click on the service name and select "Properties" from the menu. Alternatively, you can select the service name and click on the "Properties" button on the toolbar. You should see a window with several tabs and options.
On the "Log On" tab, under "Log on as", you can select either "Local System account" or "This account". If you choose "Local System account", then the service will run under a predefined local account that has extensive privileges on the local computer. If you choose "This account", then you will need to enter a valid username and password for an account that has appropriate permissions and security settings for running the service. You may need to consult with your IT team or your software vendor to determine which option is best for your situation. Then, click on "OK" to save your changes.
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which of the following symbols is used to write a text description per line within a PowerShell script?
- A. &
- B. @
- C. %
- D. #
Answer: D
Explanation:
The # symbol is used to write a text description per line within a PowerShell script. A text description is also known as a comment, which is a line of code that is ignored by the PowerShell interpreter and serves as documentation or explanation for human readers. The # symbol indicates that everything following it on the same line is a comment and not part of the script commands or expressions. For example:
This is a comment in PowerShell
Write-Host "Hello World" # This command prints Hello World to the console References: CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 6.0: Troubleshooting, Objective 6.3:
Given a scenario, troubleshoot scripting errors using PowerShell commands.
NEW QUESTION # 84
A server technician installs a new NIC on a server and configures the NIC for IP connectivity. The technician then tests the connection using the ping command. Given the following partial output of the ping and ipconfig commands:
Which of the following caused the issue?
- A. DHCP misconfiguration
- B. Duplicate IP address
- C. Incorrect default gateway
- D. Incorrect routing table
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The ping command output shows that the NIC has an IP address of 192.168.1.100 and a default gateway of 192.168.1.1. However, when the technician tries to ping the default gateway, the reply comes from another IP address: 192.168.1.101. This means that there is another device on the network that has the same IP address as the default gateway, and it is responding to the ping request instead of the intended destination.
A duplicate IP address can cause network connectivity problems, such as packet loss, routing errors, or unreachable hosts. To resolve this issue, the technician should either change the IP address of the default gateway or the device that is conflicting with it, or use DHCP to assign IP addresses automatically and avoid conflicts.
The other options are not correct because they do not explain the ping output. An incorrect default gateway would cause no reply or a destination unreachable message, not a reply from a different IP address. A DHCP misconfiguration would cause an invalid or no IP address on the NIC, not a duplicate IP address on the network. An incorrect routing table would cause routing errors or unreachable destinations, not a reply from a different IP address.
References:
https://askleo.com/what_is_ping_and_what_does_its_output_tell_me/
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/ping
NEW QUESTION # 85
A server technician installs a new NIC on a server and configures the NIC for IP connectivity. The technician then tests the connection using the ping command. Given the following partial output of the ping and ipconfig commands:
Which of the following caused the issue?
- A. DHCP misconfiguration
- B. Duplicate IP address
- C. Incorrect default gateway
- D. Incorrect routing table
Answer: B
Explanation:
* The ping command output shows that the NIC has an IP address of 192.168.1.100 and a default gateway of 192.168.1.1. However, when the technician tries to ping the default gateway, the reply comes from another IP address: 192.168.1.101. This means that there is another device on the network that has the same IP address as the default gateway, and it is responding to the ping request instead of the intended destination.
* A duplicate IP address can cause network connectivity problems, such as packet loss, routing errors, or unreachable hosts. To resolve this issue, the technician should either change the IP address of the default gateway or the device that is conflicting with it, or use DHCP to assign IP addresses automatically and avoid conflicts.
* The other options are not correct because they do not explain the ping output. An incorrect default gateway would cause no reply or a destination unreachable message, not a reply from a different IP address. A DHCP misconfiguration would cause an invalid or no IP address on the NIC, not a duplicate IP address on the network. An incorrect routing table would cause routing errors or unreachable destinations, not a reply from a different IP address.
References:
* https://askleo.com/what_is_ping_and_what_does_its_output_tell_me/
* https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/ping
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which of the following tools will analyze network logs in real time to report on suspicious log events?
- A. DLP
- B. Syslog
- C. SIEM
- D. HIPS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
SIEM is the tool that will analyze network logs in real time to report on suspicious log events. SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, which is a software solution that collects, analyzes, and correlates log data from various sources, such as servers, firewalls, routers, antivirus software, etc. SIEM can detect anomalies, patterns, trends, and threats in the log data and generate alerts or reports for security monitoring and incident response. SIEM can also provide historical analysis and compliance reporting for audit purposes.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which of the following ensures a secondary network path is available if the primary connection fails?
- A. Heartbeat
- B. Link aggregation
- C. Fault tolerance
- D. Most recently used
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 88
An administrator is troubleshooting a RAID issue in a failed server. The server reported a drive failure, and then it crashed and would no longer boot. There are two arrays on the failed server: a two-drive RAIO 0 set tor the OS, and an eight-drive RAID 10 set for data. Which of the following failure scenarios MOST likely occurred?
- A. A drive failed and then recovered in the data array.
- B. A drive failed in both of the arrays.
- C. A drive failed in the OS array.
- D. A drive failed in the data array.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
If a server has two arrays on the failed server: a two-drive RAID 0 set for the OS, and an eight-drive RAID 10 set for data, then the most likely failure scenario that caused the server to crash and not boot is that a drive failed in the OS array. RAID 0 is a RAID configuration that stripes data across two or more drives without parity or redundancy. RAID 0 offers high performance but no fault tolerance. If one drive fails in RAID 0, all data is lost and the system cannot boot. RAID 10 is a RAID configuration that combines disk mirroring and disk striping with parity. RAID 10 offers high performance and fault tolerance. RAID 10 can tolerate up to one drive failure per mirrored pair without losing data or functionality. References:
https://www.technewstoday.com/what-is-a-raid-0/ https://www.technewstoday.com/what-is-a-raid-10/
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of me following is the BEST action to perform before applying patches to one of the hosts in a high availability cluster?
- A. Disable the heartbeat network.
- B. Failover all VMs.
- C. Fallback cluster services.
- D. Set the cluster to active-active.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 90
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